51. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
Answer: (C)
52. Which of the following are Central Universities?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (A)
53. Consider the statement which ls followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No; it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (A)
54. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University
Answer: (B)
55. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?
1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C)
56. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer: (B)
57. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only
(D) 4 only
Answer: (D)
58. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (D)
59. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (D)
60. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B) Assam and Nagaland
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (A)
61. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D)
62. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Answer: (D)
63. In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Women students
Answer: (A)
64. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.
Answer: (D)
65. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (C)
66. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (A)
67. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3) He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4) He can be removed for proven misbehaviors or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: (D)
68. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer: (C)
69. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
70. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals
(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (A)
71. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values
Answer: (A)
72. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10
(B) 07
(C) 08
(D) 09
Answer: (B)
73. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Answer: (D)
74. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Commissions and Committees) | List – II (Year) |
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission | (i) 2005 |
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I | (ii) 1962 |
(c) K. Santhanam Committee | (iii) 1966 |
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission | (iv) 1953 |
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (B)
75. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
Answer: (C)
76. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Answer: (D)
77. Most of the Universities in India are funded by
(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
Answer: (C)
78. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India ?
(A) NCTE
(B) MCI
(C) AICTE
(D) CSIR
Answer: (C)
79. Consider the following statements :
Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.
Answer: (C)
80. The President of India is
(A) the Head of State
(B) the Head of Government
(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
81. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State
Answer: (D)
82. India’s first Defence University is in the State of
(A) Haryana
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punjab
Answer: (A)
83. Most of the Universities in India
(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
(D) promote research only
Answer: (C)
84. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Planning Commission
Answer: (D)
85. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Answer: (B)
86. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer: (D)
87. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Answer: (B)
88. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.
Answer: (C)
89. Which option is not correct?
(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall
Under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th Constitutional Amendment.
Answer: (C)
89. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008
Answer: (A)
90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Articles of the
Constitution)
(Institutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer: (A)
91. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council
Answer: (C)
92. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Answer: (D)
93. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively with the classroom teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3
(B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4
(D) 2 & 4
Answer: (C)
94. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer: (B)
95. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer: (C)
96. The Parliament in India is composed of
(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer: (C)
97. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Answer: (B)
99. Bog is a wetland that receives water from:
(A) nearby water bodies
(B) melting
(C) rain fall only
(D) sea only
Answer: (C)
100. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes?
(A) Central Indian Highland
(B) Coastal region
(C) Himalayan region
(D) Indian desert
Answer: (C)
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