1. The mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC) includes
(i) Disbursing grants to Universities and colleges
(ii) Recognizing and monitoring technical institutions
(iii) Funding research centres in Universities
(iv) Managing various scholarship programmes
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (2)
2. Which one of the following States is going to have India’s first National Rail and Transportation University?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Bihar
(4) Gujarat
Answer: (4)
3. The Citizen’s Charter is an instrument which seeks to make an organisation
(i) Transparent
(ii) Accountable
(iii) Formal
(iv) Accessible
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (3)
4. The Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election, if
(1) he/she himself/herself is a candidate
(2) he/she is a caretaker Chief Minister
(3) he/she has a criminal case pending against him/her
(4) he/she is a nominated member of the State Legislative Assembly
Answer: (4)
5. In the QS World Rankings (2018), which of the following Indian Universities is/are among the top 500 Universities?
(i) University of Delhi
(ii) University of Hyderabad
(iii) Banaras Hindu University
(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru University
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (1)
6. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:
(a) Agriculture as micro-nutrient
(b) Wasteland development
(c) Dam and water holding structures
(d) Brick industry
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) Only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) Only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (4)
7. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?
(1) Earthquakes
(2) Landsides
(3) Hurricanes
(4) Droughts
Answer: (4)
8. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.
Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment. Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (1)
9. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.
(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE
(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE
(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE
Answer: (1)
10. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?
(1) Unregulated small scale industry
(2) Untreated sewage
(3) Agricultural run-off
(4) Thermal power plants
Answer: (2)
11. Which of the following universities has received the Visitor’s Award for the best Central
University in India in Feb, 2017?
(1) Banaras Hindu University
(2) Tezpur University
(3) University of Hyderabad
(4) Jawaharlal Nehru University
Answer: (4)
12. Which of the following has been ranked the best college in the country (2017) as per the
National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF)?
(1) St. Stephen’s College, Delhi
(2) Fergusson College, Pune
(3) Maharaja’s College, Mysore
(4) Miranda House, Delhi
Answer: (4)
13. Which of the following are the goals of higher education in India?
(a) Access
(b) Equity
(c) Quality and Excellence
(d) Relevance
(e) Value based Education
(f) Compulsory and free education
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (a), (b), (e) and (f)
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
(4) (a), (b) and (e) only
Answer: (2)
14. Who among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament’s resolution?
(a) Governor of a State
(b) Chief Election Commissioner
(c) Comptroller and Auditor – General
(d) Judge of a High Court
Answer: (1)
15. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (3)
16. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (2)
17.. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (2)
18. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President's Rule in a State?
(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (b) and (c)
Answer: (1)
19. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good behaviour?
(a) Governor of a State
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court
(d) Administrator of a Union Territory Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (2)
20. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on
(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.
(3) Concern for human values.
(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.
Answer: (3)
21. Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the India Rankings 2016?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
(B) Central University, Hyderabad
(C) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
(D) Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai
Answer: (C)
22. Which of the following statements are correct about distance education in India?
(a) It supplements formal education.
(b) It reduces the cost of education.
(c) It replaces the formal education.
(d) It enhances access to education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (C)
23. Which of the following are statutory bodies?
(a) Election Commission of India
(b) University Grants Commission (UGC)
(c) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (b) and (d)
Answer: (C)
24. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya Sabha?
(a) It has same powers as those of Lok Sabha.
(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
(c) It can amend a money bill.
(d) It can be dissolved during emergency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (b) and (c)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (D)
25. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the powers of the Governor of a State?
(a) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
(b) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.
(c) He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.
(d) He has diplomatic powers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (a) only
(B) (a) and (b)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: (A)
26. In which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (Hear the other party) must be followed?
(a) Dismissal of an employee
(b) Supersession of a municipality
(c) Threat to national security
(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (C)
27. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (c) only
Answer: (D)
28. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (c) only
Answer: (D)
29. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?
(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
Codes:
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (A)
30. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (C)
31. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among students and teachers.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (B)
32. The best way for providing value education is through
(A) Discussions on scriptural texts
(B) Lecture/discourses on values
(C) Seminars/symposia on values
(D) Mentoring/reflective sessions on values
Answer: (D)
33. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The High Court
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(D) The President of India
Answer: (A)
34. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer: (B)
35.Which of the following are the objectives of Kashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhivan (RUSA) ?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) lo ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer (2) (a), (b) and (c)
36 The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are :
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer (2) (a), (b) and (c)
37 Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First – past – the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b); (c) and (d)
Answer (1) (a) and (c)
38 Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in :
(1) the Union List
(2) the State List
(3) the Concurrent List
(4) the Residuary Powers
Answer (2) the State List
39 The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is :
(1) 4 years
(2) 5 years
(3) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(4) not fixed
Answer (4) not fixed
40 Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) West Bengal
Answer (1) Maharashtra
41. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing, autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (C)
42. The session of the parliament is summoned by:
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) The President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (B)
43. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(A) ~15%
(B) ~3%
(C) ~6%
(D) ~10%
Answer: (C)
44. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) European Union
(D) China
Answer: (C)
45. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as:
(A) Decryption
(B) Protection
(C) Detection
(D) Encryption
Answer: (D)
46. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on:
(A) 7th July
(B) 21st April
(C) 24th April
(D) 21st June
Answer: (B)
47. The South Asia University is situated in the city of:
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) Dhaka
(D) New Delhi
Answer: (D)
48. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting?
(A) Google Talk
(B) AltaVista
(C) MAC
(D) Microsoft Office
Answer: (A)
49. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(A) 23 percent
(B) 8 percent
(C) 12 percent
(D) 19 percent
Answer: (A)
50. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the planning Commission?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State of Planning
(D) Member Secretary
Answer: (B)
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