1. From the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R), indicate the correct code:
Assertion (A): The quantity of a product demanded invariably changes inversely to changes in its price.
Reason (R): The price effect is the net result of the positive substitution effect and negative income effect.
Codes:
(1) (A) and (R) both are correct.
(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
Answer: (2)
2. Match the items of the List – I with that of the List – II and suggest the correct code from the fol- lowing:
List – I List – II
i. Cost function a. Kinked demand
ii. Supply function b. Isoquants
iii. Production function c. Engineering method
iv. Oligopoly d. Factor prices
Codes:
i ii iii iv
(1)c d a b
(2)b a c d
(3)a b d c
(4)d c b a
Answer: (4)
3. Which one of the following combinations may not render the investment multiplier inapplicable?
(1) Net imports, undistributed profits and taxation.
(2) Excess stocks of consumption goods, debt can- cellation and savings.
(3) Price inflation, public investment programmes and strong liquidity preference.
(4) Closed economy, unemployment in the economy, constant marginal propensity to consume.
Answer: (4)
4. Match the items of the List – I with that of the List – II and suggest the correct code from the fol- lowing:
List – I
i. Competitive Parity
ii. Promotional Elasticity of Market
iii. Optimal promotional mix
List – II
a. Variations in Advertising
b. Level advertising
c. Advertising expenditure decision
iv. Contra-cycle advertising
Codes:
i ii iii iv
(1)b c a d
(2)a b c d
(3)b a d c
(4)d a b c
d. Marginal equivalen cy of media outlay
Answer: (3)
5. Match the following and indicate the code of cor- rect matching:
List – I
a. Classical conditioning b. Operant conditioning c. Cognitive theory
d. Social learning
Codes: abcd
List – II
i. Response-Stimulus learning
ii. Stimulus-Response learning
iii. Stimulus-Stimulus learning
iv. Modelling process
Answer: (2)
6. Boss offers an employee a promotion which has huge increase in salary along with a new title. It also requires employee to work ten hours more per week along with shifting to a remote place. It is an example of which one of the following?
(1) ii
(2)ii
(3)i
(4)iv iii ii i
iiiivi i iii iv ii iii iv
(1) Approach conflict
(2) Approach – Approach conflict (3) Approach – Avoidance conflict (4) Avoidance – Avoidance conflict
Answer: (3)
7. Which one of the following is not an example of semantic barrier?
(1) Poorly chosen words and phrases
(2) Faulty translation
(3) Use of symbols that have various meanings
(4) Guarding against certain type of information
Answer: (4)
8. Assertion (A): Equity theory of work motivation is based on social exchange process, in which individ- uals make contributions (inputs) and expect certain rewards (outcomes).
Reason (R): Individuals decide whether or not a par- ticular exchange is satisfactory by comparing their inputs and outcomes with those of others and try to rectify inequality.
Codes:
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
Answer: (3)
9. Which one of the following methods of perform- ance appraisal involves ranking employees from best to worst in a particular trait?
(1) Graphic Rating Scale method
(2) Forced Distribution method
(3) Paired Comparison method
(4) Alternation Ranking method
Answer: (4) [
10. Which one of the following is not a basic feature of ‘Scanlon Plan’?
(1) Philosophy of competition (2) Identity
(3) Competence
(4) Involvement system
Answer: (1)
11. A union of electricians working in different indus- tries is called by which one of the following?
(1) Craft Union
(2) Industrial Union
(3) General Union
(4) National Union
Answer: (1)
12. Which one of the following is not correct about voluntary retirement scheme in public enterpris- es?
(1) It was designed to help enterprises rationalise their surplus manpower.
(2) Salary for the purpose of VRS consists of basic pay only.
(3) Benefits are in addition to money that has accrued to provident fund.
(4) Benefit is tax-free severance payment.
Answer: (2)
13. In case Mutual Funds invest in the securities whose price variations suggest the general price movement, it is called
(1) Hedge Fund
(2) Index Fund
(3) Growth Fund
(4) Balanced Fund
Answer: (2)
14. Indicate the correct code of the combinations of the following methods commonly used for capital budgeting
a. Payback Period
b. Profitability Index
c. Utility theory
d. Internal rate of return Codes:
(1) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(2) b, c and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer: (3)
15. Match the items of List – I with those of List – II and indicate the correct code from the following:
List – I
i. Sale of existing firm to the management
ii. Financing acquisition with substantial secured borrowings
List – II
a. Reverse synergy
b. Management buyout
iii. Firms demerged worth
more to other firms c. Reverse capital
budgeting
iv. Cash inflows on demerger at present at the sacrifice in form of cash out-flow on transfer of division/asset
Codes:
i ii iii iv
(1)a b c d (2)c a b d (3)b d a c (4)b a d c
Answer: (3)
16. NPV and IRR methods of investment evaluation may give divergent accept-reject decisions on account of which of the following?
a. Varying initial investment
b. Divergent cash flows from the investment projects
d. Leveraged buyout
c. Disparity in the lives of the investment projects
Indicate the correct code of their combinations Codes:
(1) a and b only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c all
Answer: (4)
17. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the code of correct matching:
List – I
a. Latent demand
b. Full demand
c. Overfull demand
List – II
i. More consumers would like to buy the product than can be satisfied.
ii. Consumers may be attracted to products that have undesirable social consequences.
iii. Consumers may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing product.
d. Unwholesome demand iv. Consumers are ade- quately buying all products
Codes: abcd
(1)iii i iv ii (2) iii iv i ii (3) iv iii i ii (4)i ii iii iv Answer: (2)
18. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the code of correct matching:
List – I (Medium of Mass Communication) a. Outdoor
b. Yellow pages c. Brochures
d. Telephone
List – II (Limitations)
i. Relative high cost; increasing consumer resist- ance
ii. Over production could lead to runaway costs
iii. High competition; long ad purchase lead time; cre- ative limitations
iv. Limited audience selec- tivity; creative limitations
put into the market place.
Codes: abcd
(1) iv (2)i (3) iii (4) iv
Answer:
19. “The manufacturer threatens to withdraw a resource or terminate a relationship if intermedi- aries fail to cooperate”, refers to which one of the following channel power?
(1) Referent power
(2) Coercive power
(3) Legitimate power
(4) Reward power
Answer: (2)
20. Assertion (A): A company’s positioning and differ- entiation strategy must change over the product life cycle.
Reason (R): A company’s product, market and com- petitors change over the product life cycle.
Codes:
(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
. (2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
Answer: (4)
21. The following information is given:
Expected usage of 50,000 units in a period of 250 days Cost of processing an order Rs. 20 per order Carrying cost per unit Rs. 0.50 for the period lead time on an order: 5 days Company wants to keep a reserve supply of two day’s usage.
How many units will be included in the reorder point?
iiiiii ii iii iv iiivi iiiiii
(1) 2000 (2) 1000 (3) 400 (4) 1400 Answer: (4)
22. Statement – I: A variable in the Linear Programming problem representing the unused quantity of an input resource is called surplus vari- able.
Statement – II: Values of the variables in the objec- tive function of the dual of a primary problem denote shadow prices of the variables.
Codes:
(1) Both the Statements are correct. (2) Both the statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement – I is correct while Statement – II is incorrect.
(4) Statement – I is incorrect while Statement – II is correct.
Answer: (4)
23. The least amount of time an activity is expected to consume. Which one of the following relates to the above expression as per PERT language?
(1) Expected time (2) Most likely time (3) Optimistic time (4) Pessimistic time
Answer: (3)
24. Which one of the following is not covered while considering the types of costs involved in quality control?
(1) Preventive costs
(2) Manufacturing costs
(3) Inspection costs
(4) Failure costs
Answer: (2)
25. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and indicate the code of correct matching:
List – I List – II
a. The parameters of the
distribution are n and p i. Normal distribution
b. The mean and the variance of the distribution
are identical
c. The mean and the standard deviation of the distribution determines central location and spread respectively.
ii. Exponential distribution
iii. Binomial distribution
d. The graph of the probability density function of the distribution slopes downward to the right from its maximum mean value
iv. Poisson distribution
Codes: abcd
(1) iii iv i ii (2)i ii iii iv (3) iv iii i ii (4)iii i iv ii Answer: (1)
26. When a researcher wants to select a representa- tive sample to assess different parameters from a large sized finite heterogeneous population, which one of the following sampling techniques is the most appropriate?
(1) Judgemental sampling
(2) Simple random sampling
(3) Stratified random sampling
(4) Quota sampling
Answer: (3)
27. Statement – I: The mean of the sampling distribu- tion of mean is equal to the parameter value of the population mean.
Statement – II: Stratified sampling technique is unrestricted probability (random) sampling tech- nique.
Codes:
(1) Both the Statements are correct.
(2) Both the Statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement – I is correct while Statement – II is incorrect.
(4) Statement – I is incorrect while Statement – II is correct.
Answer: (3)
28. You are given the following information about
Codes:
(1) Statement – I is correct but II is incorrect. (2) Statement – II is correct but I is incorrect.
(3) Both the Statements are correct.
(4) Both the Statements are incorrect.
Answer: (2)
29. Assertion (A): McDonald’s India Pvt. Ltd., the wholly-owned subsidiary of the US based fast-food giant McDonald’s Corporation, along with Coca- Cola, is developing a fruit based beverage, to be retailed exclusively at McDonald’s outlets.
Reason (R): Organizations rightly try to diversify in order to spread their risks across several industries.
Codes:
(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.
Answer: (1)
30. Statement – I: Competitors analysis begins with identification of potential competitors.
Statement – II: An industry analysis gives informa- tion regarding probable sources of competition.
31. Strategic management consists of which one of the following combinations:
(a) Environmental scanning
(b) Strategy for outplay
(c) Strategy formulation
(d) Strategy implementation
(e) Evaluation and control Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(2) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only
Answer: (3)
32. Michael Porter’s Five Forces Model includes which one of the following combinations?
(a) Threat of new potential entrants
(b) Threat of substitute product / service (c) Bargaining power of suppliers
(d) Bargaining power of buyers
(e) Rivalry among current competitors
(f) Rivalry among prospective competitors Codes:
(1) (a), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
(2) (a), (b), (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (e) and (f)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
Answer: (4)
33. Which one of the following is not a common moti- vation of an entrepreneur?
(1) Desire to maintain the status quo
(2) Search for more rewarding work
(3) Search for personal and professional growth
(4) Desire for independence
Answer: (1)
34. The SFURTI programme of the government is to boost production in which one of the following industries?
(1) Auto-components industry
(2) Industries using renewable energy
(3) Khadi and village industry
(4) Construction industry
Answer: (3)
35. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and identify the correct code of combination:
List – I
a. Entrepreneurship and Dynamic Capitalism
b. The Affluent Society
c. Theory of Economic Development
d. The Dynamics of Industrial Capitalism
List – II
i. A.D. Chandler Jr.
ii. J.K. Galbraith
iii. Joseph Schumpeter
iv. B.A. Kirchhoff
Codes: abcd
(1)i iii ii iv
(2)i ii iii iv
(3)iv iii ii i
(4)iv ii iii i
Answer: (4)
36. Statement – I: Entrepreneurs recognize opportuni- ties where others see chaos or confusion.
Statement – II: Entrepreneurs bring aggressive cap- ital for the existing business in traditional market place.
Codes:
(1) Statement – I is correct but II is not correct.
(2) Statement – II is correct but I is not correct.
(3) Both the Statements are correct.
(4) Both the Statements are incorrect.
Answer: (1)
37. Social responsibility of business while appropriat-
ing natural resources by a corporate entity has been recommended in which one of the following?
(1) Montreal Protocol of 1987
(2) Millennium Development Goals 2008
(3) Sustainable Development Goals 2015 in Global Sustainability Report
(4) UNDP Human Development Report
Answer: (3)
38. Disclosure of corporate governance practice and its compliance has been stipulated in which one of the following?
(1) Directors’ Responsibility Statement under Section 134 of the Companies Act 2013.
(2) Auditor’s Report
(3) C.A.G. Report
(4) Report of the SEBI and MCA 21 Answer: (1)
39. Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee Report, Ramesh Chandra Committee Report, Cadbury Committee Report primarily focus on which one of the following?
(1) ethical issues in business practice and marketing practice
(2) health programme of the employees in an organ- isation
(3) issues relating to corporate governance practice
(4) gender issues in management and equality for all
Answer: (3)
40. ‘The continuing commitment by business to behave ethically and contribute to economic development while improving the quality of life of the workforce and their families as well as of the local community and society at large.
This may be attributed rightly to which one of the following?
(1) ethical responsibility of business
(2) corporate social responsibility
(3) commitment towards employee welfare
(4) compliance with the provisions of the Plantation Workers Act.
Answer: (2)
41. Arrange the steps of diagnostic model of human resource management in the correct sequence from the first to the last.
Select the code of correct sequence:
a. Evaluate
b. Prescribe
c. Diagnose
d. Implement
Codes:
(1) c, b, a, d
(2) a, c, d, b
(3) c, b, d, a
(4) a, c, b, d
Answer: (2)
42. Which one of the following is a training technique in which trainees act out parts in a realistic man- agement situation?
(1) Action learning
(2) Role playing
(3) Behaviour modelling
(4) Case study
Answer: (2)
43. Match the following rect matching:
List – I List – II
a. INTUC i. Bhartiya Janta Party
b. AITUC ii. Communist Party of India
c. BMS iii. Indian National Congress
d. CITU iv. Communist Party of India (Marxist)
Codes: abcd
(1) iii ii i iv
(2) iii i ii iv
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) iii iv i ii
Answer: (1)
44. The agreement arrived at during the course of conciliation proceeding in industrial disputes is known as
(1) Settlement
(2) Award
(3) Reward
(4) Accord and sanction
Answer: (1)
45. Results of a period that may occur at the initial career entry when the new employee’s high job expectations confront the reality of a boring, unchallenging job.
This may rightly be attributed to which one of the following?
(1) Reality Shock
(2) Mentoring Shock
(3) Mental upcharge
(4) Career upset
Answer: (1)
46. The two dominant aspects of industrial relations scene in the modern industrial society are covered in which one of the following?
(1) Conflict and conciliation
(2) Cooperation and conciliation
(3) Conflict and cooperation
(4) Cooperation and codetermination Answer: (3)
47. The decision of the adjudication authority and arbitrator in disputes is termed as
(1) Settlement
(2) Award
(3) Reward
(4) Accord and approval
Answer: (2)
48. In case of a domestic enquiry, which one of the following is not correct about enquiry officer?
(1) He has to follow the principles of natural justice.
(2) He can recommend punishment alongwith the report of findings.
(3) He is generally an officer of the establishment but in some cases enquiry is also held by some outside agency.
(4) He can take final decision about punishment and issue an order inflicting punishment.
Answer: (4)
49. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the code of correct matching:
List – I
a. Core benefit
b. Basic product
c. Expected product Codes:
abc
(1) i ii iii
(2) iii ii i
(3) iii i ii
(4) ii i iii
List – II
i. Bed, bathroom, towel, desk and closet
ii. Clean bed sheet
iii. Rest and sleep
Answer: (3)
50. Select the correct sequence of steps in setting a pricing policy:
(a) Determining Demand
(b) Analyzing competitors’ Costs, Prices and Offers
(c) Selecting the Final Price
(d) Selecting the Pricing Objective
(e) Estimating costs
(f) Selecting a pricing method
Codes:
(1) (d), (a), (e), (b), (f) and (c)
(2) (a), (e), (b), (d), (f) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (e), (d), (f) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: (1)
51. Which one of the following is a digital communi- cations technique that involves improving visibili- ty and monitoring sentiment within social net- works and blogs?
(1) Email marketing
(2) Display advertising
(3) E-PR
(4) Search engine optimization
Answer: (3)
52. Which one of the following is the report of the company’s strengths and weaknesses relative to various competitors?
(1) Competitor value analysis
(2) Customer value analysis
(3) Customer profitability analysis
(4) Customer perceived value
Answer: (2)
53. A company prices a 2 litre bottle of its mineral water at Rs. 30 but 60 ml of the same water in a moisturizer spray for Rs. 75.
This is an example of which one of the following pricing practices?
(1) Product-Form pricing
(2) Customer-segment pricing
(3) Image pricing
(4) Location pricing
Answer: (1)
54. Assertion (A): Companies must manage service quality by understanding the effects of each serv- ice encounter.
Reason (R): Customer’s expectations play a critical role in their service experiences and evaluations.
Select the correct codes:
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. (4) (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.
Answer: (2)
55. Statement – I: Direct marketing is a non-interactive
marketing system.
Statement – II: Direct marketing uses one or more media to effect a measurable response or transaction at any location.
Select the correct code:
Codes:
(1) Both the Statements are correct.
(2) Both the Statements are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement – I is correct.
(4) Only Statement – II is correct.
Answer: (4)
56. Which one of the following refers to “two or more unrelated companies put together resources or programmes to exploit an emerging market opportunity”?
(1) Holistic marketing
(2) Horizontal marketing system
(3) Hub and spoke system
(4) Co-branding
Answer: (2)
57. Credit sales of a firm in a certain year amounted to Rs. 12,00,000 and the sundry debtors outstand- ing at the beginning and the end of the year amounted to Rs. 1,20,000 and Rs 80,000 respec- tively. Indicate the correct code for the debtors turnover ratio and the average collection period from the following:
(1) 10 and 1.2 months
(2) 12 and 1 month
(3) 15 and 0.8 month
(4) 6 and 2 months
Answer: (2)
58. Inventory control system concerns with which combination of the following:
a. ABC Inventory system
b. JIT system
c. Re-ordering system
d. Outsourcing system
Codes:
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer: (*)
59. The credit policy of a firm is not decided for which combination of the following?
a. Maximisation of sales
b. Minimisation of bad debt losses
c. Maximisation of shareholder’s wealth
d. Minimisation of adverse effect on the volume of sales
Codes:
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b and d
Answer: (4)
60. Match the items of List – I with those in List – II and indicate the correct code for the following:
List – I List – II
i. Concentration
Banking a. William J. Baumol
ii. Optimum cash balance
under certainty b. Cash collection tech
nique
iii. Playing the float c. Miller M.H. and Orr D
iv. Optimum cash balance under uncertainty d. Cash disbursement tech nique
Codes:
i ii iii iv
(1) a c b d
(2) b a d c
(3) c d a b
(4) d b c a
Answer: (2)
61. Indicate the correct code for the liquidity ratios from the following:
a. Current Ratio
b. Acid Test/Quick Ratio
c. Total Assets Turnover Ratio
d. Defensive-Interval Ratio
Codes:
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer: (3)
62. Non-payment by solvent debtor till due date involves which one type of cost from the following?
(1) Default cost
(2) Delinquency cost
(3) Capital cost
(4) Extra collection cost
Answer: (2)
63. Banks normally provide working capital finance in forms of which combination of the following?
a. Term loans
b. Discounting of bills
c. Overdrafts
d. Cash credits
Codes:
(1) a, b and c
2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer: (2)
64. In case a product’s selling price (per unit) is Rs. 20, the variable cost (per unit) is Rs. 14, fixed fac- tory overheads, (per year) is Rs. 5,40,000 and fixed selling overheads is Rs. 2,52,000, the break- even in terms of sales volume and the number of units to be sold to earn a profit of Rs. 60,000 will be which one of the following?
Break-even Volume of Sales and Units to be sold for the desired profits
(1) Rs. 24,60,000 and 1,36,000 units
(2) Rs. 25,40,000 and 1,40,000 units
(3) Rs. 26,40,000 and 1,42,000 units
(4) Rs. 28,60,000 and 1,48,000 units Answer: (3)
65. Anti dumping duty is levied on which one of the following:
(1) The goods exported from home country to encourage more export to a sovereign.
(2) The goods imported into the home country for the purpose of re-export to another sovereign.
(3) The dumped imports which is causing damage to the domestic industry in the importing country.
(4) The dumped imports which are meant for re-entry into a sovereign for further trade.
Answer: (3)
66. Assertion (A): Export Processing Zones (EPZs) were set up as an enclave separated from the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) and converted into SEZs.
Reason (R): The Export Oriented Units (EOUs) scheme is complimentary to the EPZ and is intro- duced to enable exporters enjoy liberal package of incentives.
Codes:
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
Answer: (4)
67. Challenges before international business such as base erosion and profit shifting (BEPs), tax avoid- ance and shifting between a holding company and a subsidiary located in two different tax sover- eigns may be resolved by which one of the follow- ing?
(1) Mandate of Viena convention
(2) Montreal protocol
(3) Technology transfer transactions, cyber space
(4) Kyoto protocol
Answer: (3)
68. An efficient dispute settlement mechanism under WTO was brought in by which one of the follow- ing:
(1) The Uruguay Round Agreement
(2) Doha Round
(3) UNDP Human Development Report 2000
(4) The Uruguay and Geneva Round of Negotiation
Answer: (1)
69. The undernoted items may be categorized into which one of the following?
Export quota, exchange control, profit remittance restrictions, subsidies, government procurement
(1) Tariffs
(2) Unrestricted tariffs
(3) Non-tariff barriers
(4) Hybrid of tariff and no-tariff barriers
Answer: (3)
70. The undernoted items are categorized into which one of the following international product deci- sions for global business?
Straight extension, product adaptation, commu- nication extension, communication adaptation, product extension, dual adaptation and innova- tion
(1) Product diversification
(2) Product market segmentation
(3) Product communication strategies
(4) Market segmentation and product promotion
Answer: (3)
71. Match the items given in List – I with the items of List – II and indicate the code of correct match- ing:
List – I
a. CIP i. Carriage
b. CPT ii. Insurance and carriage
c. DAF iii. Freight, cost, insurance
d. CIF iv. Frontier
Codes:
abcd
(1) ii i iv iii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii ii iv i
(4) iv iii ii i
List – II
Answer: (1)
72. To comply with the requirement of TRIPS agree- ment and to protect products of Indian origin, which one of the following was enacted?
(1) WTO Compliance Act 1999
(2) Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act 1999
(3) The Patents Act
(4) The Copyright Act
Answer: (2)
73. Which one of the following transactions can be carried on without any restriction or regulation of the RBI under the FEMA?
(1) Transfer or issue of any foreign security by a per- son resident in India.
(2) Transfer or issue of any security by a person res- ident outside India.
(3) Drawal of foreign exchange for payments due on account of amortization of loans or for depreciation of direct investment.
(4) Export, import or holding of currency notes.
Answer: (3)
74. In international marketing, market selection process is generally done by considering which one of the following?
(1) Farm related factors, market related factors, cen- tral banking measures related factors
(2) Farm related factors, market related factors.
(3) Market related factors, non-farm related factors, government related factors.
(4) Farm related factors, capital market related fac- tors, and central banking measures related factors.
Answer: (2)
75. The exit of Great Britain from the European Union (EU) in June 2016 by a referendum has been announced as invalid by the London High Court on which one of the following reasons?
(1) Referendum has got no legal sanction
(2) Exit was not as per the British law.
(3) Exit was not as per the EU law.
(4) The Brexit cannot be legal under Article 50 with- out approval of the British Parliament.
Answer: (4)
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